In a book I found the following notation:
Let $c,d\in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $c\mathbb{Z}+d\mathbb{Z}=\mathbb{Z}$.
For me, this means that $\gcd(c,d)=1$. If $\gcd(c,d)=1$, then there is $z,u\in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $cz+du=1$. Then any integer $b\in\mathbb{Z}$ can be written as $$b=b(cz+du)=czb+dub \in c\mathbb{Z}+d\mathbb{Z}.$$
My question: is the author means something more or just $\gcd(c,d)=1$.
Thanks
You are correct. $\ c\,\Bbb Z + d\,\Bbb Z = b\,\Bbb Z\iff \gcd(c,d) = \pm b.\,$ This follows essentially from Bezout's identity for the gcd - see this answer. The former is a natural ideal-theoretic way to write it in Bezout/PIDs like $\,\Bbb Z,\,$ which may explain the author's choice of formulation.