We have $i^2 = -1$ where $i = \sqrt{-1}$. Now consider $$\sqrt{-1}\cdot \sqrt{-1} = \sqrt{(-1)\cdot(-1)} = \sqrt1 = 1$$ Which proves $-1 = 1$. Is there anything wrong with the above manipulation?
2026-03-29 04:10:53.1774757453
Is there any flaw in the proof of $-1 = 1$?
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The equality $\sqrt{a}\cdot\sqrt{b}=\sqrt{ab}$ doesn't hold for $a,b<0$