I'll provide a little bit of a background so you guys can better understand my question:
Let's say I have two positive, non-zero Binary Numbers.(Which can, obviously, be mapped to integers)
I will then proceed onto doing an "AND" operation for each bit, (I think that's called a bitwise operation) which will yield yet another binary number.
Ok. Now this new Binary number can, in turn, also be mapped to an Integer.
My question is: Is there any Integer operation I can do on the mapped Integer values of the two original binary numbers that would yield the same result?
Thanks in advance.
EDIT : I forgot to mention that What I'm looking for is a mathematical expression using things like +,-,/,pow(base,exp) and the like. I'm not 100% sure (I'm a compuer scientist) but I think what I'm looking for is an isomorphism.
LAST EDIT: I think this will clear any doubts as to what sort of mathematical expression I'm looking for. I wanted something like:
The bitwise AND of two Integers A and B is always equal to (AB)X(B)X(3).
The general feeling I got is that it's not possible or extremely difficult to prove(either its validity or non-validity)
Two important sets:
The set of natural numbers $\mathbb N = \{0,1,2,3,4,\ldots\}$
The set of binary sequences $\{0,1\}^* = \{\langle \rangle,\langle 0 \rangle,\langle 1\rangle,\langle 00\rangle,\langle 01\rangle,\langle 10\rangle,\langle 11\rangle,\langle 000\rangle,\ldots\}$
There is a function $\text{binary} : \mathbb N \to \{0,1\}^*$ which converts natural numbers to binary sequences, for example:
And it has a (left) inverse (since it is injective) that converts binary strings back to natural numbers $\text{binary}^{-1} : \{0,1\}^* \to \mathbb N$.
So you have a function $\text{and} : \{0,1\}^* \to \{0,1\}^*$ defined bitwise (presumably that means inductively defined on the length of binary strings). For example:
One can define now the function $f(x,y) = \text{binary}^{-1}(\text{and}(\text{binary}(x),\text{binary}(y)))$ which acts for example
If you doubt any of this is "mathematical" you should specify what foundation you use (set theory probably?) and we can turn everything into axioms. If you wanted a formula like $f(x,y) = x^y - \frac{y+x}{y^{\sqrt{x}}}$ then I would guess no such thing exists but to prove you would have to define a specific grammar of formulas and it would be very difficult even then.
Although, for all $a,b$, $f$ satisfies the odd property $f(a,b) \le a$ and $f(a,b) \le b$. It may be possible to show no polynomials satisfy this property but I can't see how to do it for exponentials.