In the category of functors of type $\mathcal{C}\rightarrow \mathcal{D}$ an arrow $\psi: F \Rightarrow G$ is defined as a collections of $\left(\psi_X: FX \rightarrow GX| X:\mathcal{C} \right)$ of compenents in $\mathcal{D}$, such that $\psi_Y \circ FX = GY \circ \psi_X$ and in case all the components are invertible, $\psi$ is called a natural equivalence or natural isomorphism of $F$ and $G$. My question is whether or not:
There exists a natural equivalence of $F,G: \mathcal{C}\rightarrow \mathcal{D}$, iff $FX \simeq GY \mbox{ in } \mathcal{D} \mbox{ whenever } X \simeq Y \mbox{ in }\mathcal{C}$
in other words: $$F\simeq G \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}^{\mathcal{D}} \Leftrightarrow FX \simeq GY \mbox{ in } \mathcal{D} \mbox{ whenever } X \simeq Y \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}$$
Thanks
The answer is no.
From left to right:
For all $X \simeq Y \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}$
$$F\simeq G \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}^{\mathcal{D}} \Rightarrow FX \simeq FY \simeq GY \mbox{ in } \mathcal{D} $$
From right to left however:
For all $X \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}$
$$ X \simeq X \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C} \Rightarrow FX \simeq GX \mbox{ in } \mathcal{D}$$
but this is not enough to imply that $ F\simeq G \mbox{ in } \mathcal{C}^{\mathcal{D}}$ as Jeremy Rickard shows above