Happened to stumble across this question and to me it immediately made me assume it's a proof my induction question but doesn't seem to be so.
Question : Show that for every natural $k$ and $n$ we have $$\frac{1}{k(k+1)}+\frac{1}{(k+1)(k+2)}+\dots +\frac{1}{(n+k-1)(n+k)}= \frac{n}{k(n+k)}$$ Hence deduce that the sum above is smaller than $1/k$
I tried to do this by proof by induction but I happened to find no way to link the $n=k$ and $n+k+1$ part and unless I made a stupid error, I don't see how this can be proved by induction.
Does anyone know how one would answer this question? Thanks.
$$\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+1}=\frac{k+1}{k(k+1)}-\frac{k}{k(k+1)}=\frac{1}{k(k+1)}$$ That's true for all of the terms of the sequence, so $$\frac{1}{k(k+1)}+\frac{1}{(k+1)(k+2)}+\frac{1}{(k+2)(k+3)}+...+\frac{1}{(k+n-1)(k+n)} $$ $$=\left(\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+1}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{k+1}-\frac{1}{k+2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{k+2}-\frac{1}{k+3}\right)+...+\left(\frac{1}{k+m-1}- \frac{1}{k+n}\right)$$ $$=\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+n}=\frac{k+n}{k(k+n)}-\frac{k}{k(k+n)}=\frac{n}{k(k+n)}$$