Is this a proper rendering for "$b$ is a power of 2" using TNT from Gödel, Escher, Bach

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In the book "Gödel, Escher, Bach" by Hofstadter introduces the system of "Typographical Number Theory". One of the exercises is to write 'b is a power of 2', I ended up coming up with the following $<(a \cdot c)=b \supset \exists a':(SS0 \cdot a')=a \land \exists c': (SS0 \cdot c')=c>$ My interpretation into English of the phrase is "$a$ and $c$ being factors of $b$ implies that both and $a$ and $c$ are even" which I believe only holds true for $b$ that are powers of 2. Is this a valid way of writing 'b is a power of 2' in the system, and if it is/isn't how can I be sure.

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Your formula doesn't quite work as written, because every number has $1$ as a factor. For example, $8$ is a power of $2$, but we have $1\cdot 8 = 8$, and $1$ is not even.

But the basic idea is correct. You can express "$b$ is a power of $2$" by "every factor of $b$ except for $1$ is even". I would write this as follows: $$\forall a\, ((\exists c\, a\cdot c = b) \rightarrow (a = S0 \lor \exists d\, (a = SS0\cdot d)))$$

I'm not sure my notation matches Hofstadter's (for example I strongly prefer $\rightarrow$ to $\supset$ as a symbol for implication), but I trust you can make the notational adjustments necessary to translate my formula into a formula of TNT.


In the comments, you write "How can I be certain that there does not exist some spooky counter example?". You can be certain by proving it!

Suppose $n$ is a natural number. We want to prove that $n$ is a power of $2$ if and only if every factor of $n$ is either even or equal to $1$.

If $n$ is a power of $2$, then by uniqueness of prime factorization, the only prime number dividing $n$ is $2$. If $n$ has an odd factor $m$ with $m\neq 1$, then $m$ has an odd prime factor $p$, which is also an odd prime factor of $n$, contradiction.

Conversely, if every factor of $n$ is either even or equal to $1$, then since $1$ is not prime and $2$ is the only even prime, the only prime number appearing in the prime factorization of $n$ is $2$, so $n$ is a power of $2$.

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Make sure to universally quantify the $a$ and $c$. And yes, then your formula works since then it implies that $b$ has no factors other than $2$