In the book, optimization on matrix manifolds by Absil, Chapter 3 pg 59, it is given that retraction on the orthogonal manifold $O_n$, using the Cayley's transform, is given by $$ R_{X}(X \Omega)=X\left(I-\frac{1}{2} \Omega\right)^{-1}\left(I+\frac{1}{2} \Omega\right) $$ I am trying to derive to this from first principles but stuck mid-way.
My attempt:
Let $Q \in O_n$ and $\Omega$ be a skew symmetric matrix. By Cayley's transform, for each $\Omega$ we can find a $Q$ such that $$Q = \left( I - \Omega \right) \left( I + \Omega \right)^{-1}$$ Let $\phi$ be the mapping from $[Q^{-1},I - \Omega] \rightarrow I+\Omega$. Therefore, we can write $\pi_{1} \circ \phi^{-1}$ as matrix that takes in $I+\Omega$ and outputs $Q^{-1}$.
\begin{align} R_{X}(X+X\Omega) &:=\pi_{1}\left(\phi^{-1}(X+X\Omega)\right) \\ & = X \pi_{1}\left(\phi^{-1}(I+\Omega)\right) \\ & = X Q^{-1} \\ & = X \left( I + \Omega \right) \left( I - \Omega \right)^{-1} \\ & = X \left( I - \Omega \right)^{-1} \left( I + \Omega \right) \qquad \quad \text{as the matrices commute}\\ \end{align}
I am not sure how to get the the $\frac{1}{2}$ as mentioned in the textbook. Can you please help. Thank you.
Update: One of the answers says that this is a typo in the book. Can others please confirm?

Hint: Let $\Omega$ be skew-symmetric of order $n$. Then $\frac{1}{2} \Omega$ is also skew-symmetric. Hence, by Cayley's transform there exists a $Q \in O_n$ such that $$Q = (I - \tfrac{1}{2} \Omega) (I + \tfrac{1}{2} \Omega)^{-1}$$.