I am confused whether or not my explanation for whether or not this formula is satisfiable is correct. Note that the question state it should be Brief and it should not be necessary to write down a full truth table.
I asked someone and they said my explanation was not ok and one was only giving an example of the formula not being satisfiable. And that the formula was satisfiable...
Here is the formula: (p→q)→(¬p→¬q)
And here is my explanation why I think its not satisfiable
- A→B is satisfiable as long as you don't have both A= true and B= false.
- When p = false, and q = true
- A or (p→q)= true , and B or (¬p→¬q) = false
- Therefore is not satisfiable.
Could somone improve or confirm if my explanation is ok
The formula is satisfiable. To make an implication true, it is enough to make the first term false.
And it is easy to make $p\to q$ false. Make $p$ true and $q$ false.