Is this in fact a non-Hausdorff topology?

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in $\mathbb{R}^2$ for any y take $B_y:=\{(x,y) \in\mathbb{R}^2 : x \in \mathbb{R}\}$. Consider the basis of the topology to be $$\mathcal{B}=\{B_y: y \in \mathbb{R}\}.$$

This gives a non-hausdorff topology since for any two points in the same vertical line any open set that contains one contains the other. Is this correct?

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The sets of the basis are the lines parallel to $x-$axis.

Take any point $z_1=(x_1,y),z_2=(x_2,y)$ where $x_1 \neq x_2$ and $y \in \Bbb{R}$

There do not exist disjoint open sets $A,B$ such that $z_1 \in A$ and $z_2 \in B$

Note that from the definition of the basis, every open set in this topology is expressed as a(disjoint) union of the sets $B_y$