Since I'm not very familiar with logarithms I'm not sure if this proof is correct. The problem is this:
Prove that if $a,b > 0$ and $a>b$ then is true that $a^a>b^a$ (this comes from another post)
My proof is this:
We can take the $\log$ in base $a$ of both $a^a$ and $b^a$ since they're both positive quantities
$$\log_a(a^a)>\log_a(b^a)$$ $$a>\log_a(b^a)$$ Now we can change the base of $\log_a(b^a)$ ti $b$ using the change-of-base formula $$\log_a(b^a)=\frac{\log_b(b^a)}{\log_b(a)}=\frac{a}{\log_b(a)}$$ If we substitute in the last equation we get $$a>\frac{a}{\log_b(a)}$$ $$\log_b(a)>1$$ Which is always true because $b<a$ QED
Is this correct?
It seems correct but what you have written is the path to the discovery of a proof, not the proof itself. You need to write your steps in reverse order to make it a proof, taking care to justify all steps.