Is this module injective?

169 Views Asked by At

Here's the problem: (This problem is from Hungerford's Algebra Chapter 5 exercise 6.7 )

Let R be a principal ideal domain and $p$ a prime in $R$ and $n$ a positive integer. Then $R/(p^{n})$ is an unitary $R/(p^{n})$-module with $(r+(p^{n}))(s+(p^{n}))=rs+(p^{n})$. I attempt to demonstrate that the $R/(p^{n})$-module $R/(p^{n})$ is injective as following steps:

(1) I notice that the ring $R/(p^{n})$ is a principal ideal ring since it is a quotient ring of $R$ which is a PID. And by this fact, I prove that each proper ideal of $R/(p^{n})$ is generated by $p^{i}+(p^{n})$ with $0<i<n$.

(2) Now, in order to prove that module $R/(p^{n})$ is injective, it is sufficient to prove that for each ideal $I=(p^{i}+(p^{n}))$ of the ring $R/(p^{n})$ the module homomorphism $f: I\rightarrow R/(p^{n})$ can be extended to a homomorphism $R/(p^{n})\rightarrow R/(p^{n})$.

The module $R/(p^{n})$ is injective? how to extend this module homomorphism $f: I\rightarrow R/(p^{n})$? Anyway, any and all help is appreciated. Thanks.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On

All modules involved are cyclic (generated by one element), so it is sufficient to define maps on generators and extend them by linearity.

Let $f: (p^i)/(p^n) \longrightarrow R/(p^n)$ be $R/(p^n)$-linear, with $1 \leq i \leq n$. Note that (the following is $\mod{(p^i)}$) $$0=f(0) = f(p^n)=f(p^{n-i}p^i)=p^{n-i}f(p^i)$$ this means that $f(p^i) = ap^i$ for some $a \in R$.

So you can extend $f$ simply by defining $f(1)=a$ and extend by linearity.