For the linear map $Tv = Av$, T : $\mathbb{C}^{3} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{3}$, where
$A= \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -2 & 2 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ -1 & 2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} $
We are given the characteristic polynomial of T, $ch(x) = (x-2)(x-1)^2$
So far I have found that by solving:
$(I_3 - A)v = 0$
$V_1(1) = span( \begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} )$
$(I_3 - A)^2v = 0$
$V_2(1) = span( \begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} )$
and
$(2I_3 - A)v = 0$
$V_1(2) = span( \begin{bmatrix} -2 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} )$
for each eigenspace,
Does this mean that the Jordan basis is:
$B = ({ \begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix},\begin{bmatrix} -2 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}})$
and the JNF is
$J= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 2 \end{bmatrix} $
due to the multiplicities of the eigenvalues.
Would this be correct?
Thanks very much in advance.
Learn how to verify your work. Let (by abuse of notation) $B$ be the matrix whose columns are the vectors of the basis $B$. Is it true that $BJB^{-1}=A$? If it is so (and if $J$ is in Jordan form, which is obvious to check), then your Jordan basis is correct.
Equivalently, you may check that $BJ=AB$ and that $B$ is invertible, which is easier.