Is uniform convergence of a function sequence equivalent to uniform equicontinuity of the set of members of the sequence?

17 Views Asked by At

There is a plethora of questions on this topic on Math.stackexchnge.

Can the above question be answered for $C(\mathbb R ,\mathbb R)$ with an unambiguous "yes"?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

2
On BEST ANSWER

No, but it can be answered with an unambiguous “no”. Take, for instance, $f_n(x)=x+n$, for each $n\in\Bbb N$.