It is clear that $x(1-x) \le \frac{1}{4}$
Does it likewise follow that $x(1-2x) \le \frac{1}{8}$?
Here's my reasoning:
(1) For $x < \frac{1}{4}$, $x(1-2x) < \frac{1}{8}$
(2) For $\frac{1}{4} < x < \frac{1}{2}$, $x(1-2x) < \frac{1}{8}$
(3) For $\frac{1}{2} < x$, $x(1-2x) < 0$
Further, can this be generalized to $x(1-ax) \le \frac{1}{4a}$
Since:
(1) For $x < \frac{1}{2a}$, $x(1-ax) < \left(\frac{1}{2a}\right)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{4a}$
(2) For $\frac{1}{2a} < x < \frac{1}{a}$, $x(1-ax) < \left(\frac{1}{2a}\right)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = \frac{1}{4a}$
(3) For $\frac{1}{a} < x$, $x(1-ax) < 0$
Are both of these observations correct? Is only one correct? Is there an exception that I am missing?
The first it's $$16x^2-8x+1\geq0$$ or $$(4x-1)^2\geq0.$$ The second for $a>0$ it's $$4a^2x^2-4ax+1\geq0$$ or $$(2ax-1)^2\geq0.$$ For $a<0$ the second inequality is reversed.