$x^3 + x^2 + x + 1$ = ($x^2$ + 1)($x$ + 1)
I know that both are non-units.
So, since it splits into factors, then it is reducible over reals.
Is my theory correct?
$x^3 + x^2 + x + 1$ = ($x^2$ + 1)($x$ + 1)
I know that both are non-units.
So, since it splits into factors, then it is reducible over reals.
Is my theory correct?
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In the interests of having an answer instead of only comments:
@Surb is right. For $p$ to be irreducible over $\Bbb R$ means no $q\in\Bbb R[X]$ with $1\le\deg q<\deg p$ satisfies $q|p$; it's nothing to do with which roots of $p$ are elements of $\Bbb R$. See also @PacoAdajar's comparison of reducibility to a different question, that of your polynomial's splitting field, which is $\Bbb Q[i]$.