Suppose $X$ is a complex inner product space of complex valued functions that is closed under conjugation.
Is it true that $\|x\| = \| \overline{x} \|$ for all $x$?
If not, is there a simple counterexample?
(This question was triggered by Making a complex inner product symmetric.)
I believe I have a counterexample to your statement about the equality $\|x\|=\|\bar{x}\|$.
Let $S=\{a, b\}$ be a set with two entries. Define a complex-valued function $f$ on $S$ by $$f(a)=1+i, \quad f(b)=1$$ and consider the two-dimensional space $V=\operatorname{Span}\{f, \bar{f}\}$ over $\mathbb{C}$ equipped with the inner product $$(\phi, \psi)=[\phi]_{\mathcal{B}}^*P[\psi]_{\mathcal{B}}$$ where $\mathcal{B}=\{f, \bar{f}\}$ and $*$ denotes the conjugate transpose and $P=\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\1&2\end{bmatrix}$.
Now consider $g=3if+\bar{f}\in V$. Then $$\|g\|^2= \begin{bmatrix}-3i&1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1&1\\1&2\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}3i\\1\end{bmatrix}=11 $$ whereas, $$\|\bar{g}\|^2= \begin{bmatrix}1&3i\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1&1\\1&2\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1&-3i\end{bmatrix}=19. $$ The same example shows that the function defined by $\theta(x, y)=(\bar{x}, y)$ is not symmetric in general which is a counterexample to the statement of the problem linked to this question.