Suppose {$X_t$} is a series of independent random variable, that is $X_1, X_2$, ... is independent. Further, suppose $X_t$ ~ $N(0,1)$.
In my book, it was stated that $Cov[X_t,X_{t+k}^2]=0$. Does this mean that $X_t$ is independent with $X_{t+k}^2$? Can anyone explain this?
If $X$ and $Y$ are independent so are $f(X)$ and $g(Y)$ for any measurable functions $f,g: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$. This is easy to prove from definition of independence. Here you can take $f(x)=x$ and $g(x)=x^{2}$.
Of course,independence of $X_t$ and $X_{t+k}^{2}$ implies that the covariance is $0$.