While studying for a course in algebraic topology, the following question popped out:
Let $S,R$ be two commutative rings with unit, $A,B$ two $S$-modules, and assume that $R$ is also an $S$-module. Is it true that: $$\hom_S(A\otimes_SB,R)\cong\hom_S(A,R)\otimes_R\hom_S(B,R)$$ holds in general? And if not, under what kind of assumptions it could hold?
A little background could be of help. In our case, we had a map $f:S_p(X)\otimes_\mathbb{Z}S_q(Y)\to R$ (where $S_\bullet(X)$ is the singular chain complex on $X$), and a while later, the same map had to become an element of $S^p(X;R)\otimes_RS^q(Y;R)$ for a construction to work out. Thus in the question it would be enough to assume that $S=\mathbb{Z}$ and that $A,B$ are free abelian groups.
I tried to prove this for a while, and I think I got close to something looking like a proof for the simplified case exposed above (using generators of $A$ and $B$ and explicit homomorphisms between modules), however I'm not sure about all of the steps. I would really like an elegant proof relying on universal properties (or category theory), or a simple counterexample, if the statement is not true.
There is a canonical homomorphism from $\hom_S(A,R) \otimes_R \hom_S(B,R)$ to $\hom_S(A \otimes_S B,R)$. The question is if this is an isomorphism of $R$-modules.
It is true when $A$ and $B$ are finitely generated and projective (the standard proof works - show that $S$ works and that the class of "good" modules is closed under direct sums as well as direct summands).
Otherwise, it doesn't hold (even when $R=S$ is a field).