Let $R$ be a ring (associative, commutative, with unity) and $I\subset R$ is an ideal. Let $M$ be an $R/I$-module and $N$ an $R$-module. Is it true that $$\operatorname{Hom}_R(M,N)\cong \operatorname{Hom}_{R/I}(M,\operatorname{Hom}(R/I,N))\ ?$$
I've tried to use some isomorphisms like $\operatorname{Hom}(R,N)\cong N$ but this doesn't help.
Thanks.
By viewing $M$ as an $R$-module, you are in fact considering the $R$-module $M\otimes_{R/I}(R/I)$. Since the functor $?\otimes_{R/I}(R/I)$ is left adjoint to the functor $\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(R/I, ?)$, you get the isomorphism $$ \operatorname{Hom}_{R}(M\otimes_{R/I}(R/I), N) \cong \operatorname{Hom}_{R/I}(M, \operatorname{Hom}_{R}(R/I, N)).$$