Let $K$ be a field and $\mathcal U$ a universe such that $K\in\mathcal U$. (Here, "universe" means "uncountable Grothendieck universe".) Let $\mathcal C$ be the category of $K$-vector spaces belonging to $\mathcal U$, and let $i\ge0$ be an integer. If $i$ is even, put $\mathcal C_i:=\mathcal C$; if $i$ is odd, put $\mathcal C_i:=\mathcal C^\text{op}$. Let $F_i:\mathcal C_i\to\mathcal C$ be the $i$-th dual functor. For integers $i,j\ge0$ of same parity, $\operatorname{Hom}(F_i,F_j)$ is a $K$-vector space. In particular $$ d(K,\mathcal U,i,j):=\dim\operatorname{Hom}(F_i,F_j) $$ is a well-defined cardinal.
Can one compute this cardinal?
Does $d(K,\mathcal U,i,j)$ depend on $K$ and $\mathcal U$?
Is $d(K,\mathcal U,i,j)$ finite?
Have these questions been asked before?
Edit. As an illustration, here is a proof of the equality $d(K,\mathcal U,2,0)=0$. This case can be handled without universes.
Assume that, for each vector space $V$ (over the field $K$ chosen once and for all), we have a linear map $\theta_V:V^{**}\to V$, and suppose that, for each linear map $f:V\to W$, we have $$ f\circ\theta_V=\theta_W\circ f^{**}. $$
We claim: $\theta_V=0$ for all $V$.
Proof. As a general notation, put $V_1:=V^*,V_2:=V^{**},f_2:=f^{**}$, and, for each vector space $V$, let $\varepsilon_V:V\to V_2$ be the natural map. In particular, the above display becomes $$ f\circ\theta_V=\theta_W\circ f_2. $$ It is easy to see that there is a scalar $\lambda\in K$ such that $\theta_V\circ\varepsilon_V=\lambda\operatorname{id}_V$ for all $V$, and that we can assume either $\lambda=0$ or $\lambda=1$.
Case $\lambda=0$. Since $\varepsilon_K$ is an isomorphism, we get $\theta_K=0$. For $v_1$ in $V_1$ we have $v_1\circ\theta_V=\theta_K\circ v_{12}=0$. Since $v_1$ is arbitrary, this implies $\theta_V=0$.
Case $\lambda=1$. We are seeking a contradiction. For $v_1$ in $V_1$ we have $$ v_{12}=\varepsilon_K\circ\theta_K\circ v_{12}=\varepsilon_K\circ v_1\circ\theta_V, $$ that is $$ \big(v_{12}(v_2)\big)(k_1)=\bigg(\varepsilon_K\Big(v_1\big(\theta_V(v_2)\big)\Big)\bigg)(k_1) $$ for $v_2$ in $V_2$ and $k_1$ in $K_1$. The last equality can be rewritten as $$ v_2(k_1\circ v_1)=k_1\Big(v_1\big(\theta_V(v_2)\big)\Big). $$ Taking the identity of $K$ as $k_1$, we get $$ v_2(v_1)=v_1\big(\theta_V(v_2)\big) $$ for all $v_1$ in $V_1$ and all $v_2$ in $V_2$. Let $V$ be infinite dimensional. By the Erdös-Kaplansky Theorem, there is a nonzero $v_2$ in $V_2$ such that $\theta_V(v_2)=0$. Since $v_2\ne0$, there is a $v_1$ in $V_1$ such that $v_2(v_1)\ne0$, contradiction.
This is only a very partial answer. I hope there will be more complete answers in the future.
Let $V$ be a vector space, let $V_i$ be its $i$-th dual, let $\varepsilon_i:V_i\to V_{i+2}$ be the natural morphism, and let $\varepsilon_{i1}:V_{i+3}\to V_{i+1}$ be the dual of $\varepsilon_i$. We claim $$ \varepsilon_{01}\circ\varepsilon_1=\operatorname{id}_{V_1}. $$ Indeed, for $v_1$ in $V_1$ and $v$ in $V$ we get $$ \Big(\varepsilon_{01}\big(\varepsilon_1(v_1)\big)\Big)(v)=\big(\varepsilon_1(v_1)\big)(\varepsilon_0(v))=\big(\varepsilon_0(v)\big)(v_1)=v_1(v). $$ This shows that, in the notation of the question, there is a subfunctor $G_3$ of $F_3$ such that $F_3\simeq F_1\oplus G_3$, and, more generally, that there are subfunctors $G_i$ of $F_i$ for $i\ge3$ such that, if we put $G_1:=F_1,G_2:=F_2$, we have $$ F_i\simeq G_1\oplus G_3\oplus\cdots\oplus G_i $$ for $i$ odd, and $$ F_i\simeq G_2\oplus G_4\oplus\cdots\oplus G_i $$ for $i$ even, $i\ge2$.
In view of this post and that post, the question comes down to computing the cardinals $\dim\operatorname{Hom}(G_i,G_j)$ for $i,j$ positive odd integers.
The most naive hope would be to have $\dim\operatorname{Hom}(G_i,G_j)=\delta_{ij}$ for $i,j$ positive odd integers.