Let $p$ be a prime number, Consider $V$ a vector space over $\mathbb{Z}/p$ with basis $e_0$, $e_1$, $\ldots$, $e_{p-1}$ and the permutation operator $T(e_i) = e_{i+1}$, $i$ modulo $p$. The characteristic polynomial of $T$ is $\lambda^p - 1 = (\lambda-1)^p$, and so $T$ has the eigenvalue $1$ with multiplicity $p$. The problem is to determine the Jordan canonical form of $T$. It probably is a single block $J_{p, 1}$. $\bf{Added:}$ Indeed, as @Jyrki Lahtonen: pointed out, since the eigenspace for $\lambda=1$ is $1$ dimensional, spanned by $e_0+ \cdots + e_{p-1}$, there is only one block.
How to get a basis in which $T$ has the Jordan form $J_{p,1}$?
For $p=2$ it's easy, $p=3$ is just a bit of calculations. Note that we need to use $p$ is prime. If it worked $\bmod n$ for arbitrary $n$, we would have $x^n-1 = (x-1)^n \bmod n$, not true in general.
Any feedback would be appreciated. Thank you for your attention!
$\bf{Added:}$ I thank all the people who provided input. Jyrki Lahtonen clarified the things a lot for me.
Any cyclic operator on an $n$-dimensional space over $k$ "is" multiplication by $T$ on the quotient $k$-algebra $k[T]/(T^n-1)$. If $n=p$, and $\operatorname{char} k = p$, then $T^n-1= T^p-1 = (T-1)^p$. So in characteristic $p$ we have this special decomposition of $T^p-1$. Now, notice that $(T-1)$ acts nilpotently, and a Jordan basis will be $$1 \mapsto (T-1)\mapsto (T-1)^2 \mapsto \cdots \mapsto (T-1)^{p-1} \mapsto 0$$ where by $(T-1)^k$ we understand its residue $\bmod (T-1)^p$.
Now, writing $e_i = T^i$, we see that $T e_i = e_{i+1}$, and the corresponding basis will be $$e_0 \mapsto (e_1-e_0) \mapsto (e_2 - 2 e_1 + e_0) \mapsto \cdots \mapsto (e_{p-1} - \binom{p-1}{1} e_{p-2} + \cdots )\mapsto 0$$ Note that $\binom{p-1}{k} \equiv (-1)^k \bmod p$ for $0\le k \le p-1$, so the last element in the basis is exactly $e_0 + e_1 + \cdots + e_{p-1}$ . This is also the solution obtained by Carl Schildkraut.
I was thinking at some point about the operator $T$ acting on functions on $k$ with values in $k$, acting by the circular shift by $1$. Then $T-I$ is just the discrete derivative ( forward or backward). If we prefer forward derivatives, then we can consider the functions $\phi_m\colon x \mapsto \binom{x}{m}$. We have $(T-I) \phi_m= \Delta \phi_m = \phi_{m-1}$. Note that we need $0 \le m \le m-1$, due to the denominator $m!$. It seems to be an equivalent solution, up to shift in direction, and some signs. While a clever trick, it seems now that considering operators acting as multiplications on quotient rings clarifies things a lot. For instance, if $T$ acted as multiplication on $k[T]/(f)$, one only needs to decompose $f$ into powers of irreducible ( over $k$ or some extension of it). Say we write $f= (T-\lambda_1)^{e_1} \cdots (T-\lambda_l)^{e_l}$. Then we have (Chinese remainder theorem) $$k[T]/(f) \simeq \prod k[t]/(T-\lambda_i)^{e_i}$$ as $k$ algebras, so also as $k$ vectors spaces with the action of $T$. On each component $T$ will act as a Jordan cell $J_{e_i, \lambda_i}$.
$\bf{Added:}$ was lead to this question after this question which says: the regular representation of $\mathbb{Z}/3$ on $k[\mathbb{Z}/3]$ is not completely reducible if $\operatorname{char} k = 3$. In fact, Maschke's Theorem says that the group algebra $k[G]$ is semisimple if and only if $\operatorname{char} k$ does not divide $|G|$.
Such a basis is a basis $[v_0,\dots,v_{p-1}]$ of $V$ for which $Tv_0=v_0$ and $(T-1)v_{i+1}=v_i$ for all $0\leq i<p-1$.
One such basis is defined by $v_i$ so that $(v_i)_j=(-1)^i\binom{j+i}i$. We see that $v_0$ is the all-ones vector, and for each $i\geq 0$ and $1\leq j\leq p$, \begin{align*} ((T-1)v_{i+1})_j &=(Tv_{i+1})_j-(v_{i+1})_j\\ &=(v_{i+1})_{j-1}-(v_{i+1})_j\\ &=(-1)^{i+1}\left(\binom{j+i}{i+1}-\binom{j+i+1}{i+1}\right)\\ &=(-1)^i\binom{j+i}i\\ &=(v_i)_j, \end{align*} so $(T-1)v_{i+1}=v_i$.