Suppose that $f\in L^2(\mathbb{R}/2\pi\mathbb{Z})$ takes the form $$f(\theta)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_ne^{in\theta}.$$ The function $$f_r(\theta)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty r^na_ne^{in\theta}$$ is a harmonic function in $|z|<1$. Then
$$\|f_r-f\|_2=\int_\mathbb{R}\left|\sum_{n=1}^\infty(1-r^n)a_ne^{in\theta}\right|^2d\theta.$$
I want to show that $\lim_{r\rightarrow 1^-}\|f_r-f\|_2=0$. But the formula above for $\|f_r-f\|_2$ is a mess. Can I simplify it somehow?
Not such a big mess, since the functions $e^{in\theta}/(2\pi)$ form an orthonormal system in $L^2(\mathbb R/2\pi \mathbb Z)$. $$ \frac{1}{(2\pi)^2}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \left|\sum_{n=1}^\infty(1-r^n)a_ne^{in\theta}\right|^2\,d\theta = \sum_{n=1}^\infty (1-r^n)^2 |a_n|^2$$ Termwise, the series converges to $0$. It is also dominated by $\sum_{n=1}^\infty |a_n|^2$, which is finite. By the Dominated Convergence theorem (applied to $\mathbb N$ with the counting measure), $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty (1-r^n)^2 |a_n|^2\to 0$$
Details added upon request:
Alternative version, with proof from basic principles (no DCT).
Given $\epsilon>0$, pick $N$ such that $\sum_{n>N}|a_n|^2<\epsilon/2$. Since for every $n$ we have $(1-r^n)^2|a_n|^2\to 0$ as $r\to 1$, it follows that $$\sum_{n=1}^N (1-r^n)^2|a_n|^2 \to 0\quad \text{as } \ r\to 1 \tag{1}$$ Thus, there exists $\delta>0$ such that the left side of (1) is less than $\epsilon/2$ whenever $r>1-\delta$.
Conclusion: $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty (1-r^n)^2|a_n|^2 <\epsilon \quad\text{whenever } \ r> 1-\delta $$