If lim f′(x)/g′(x) → ±∞ does lim f(x)/g(x) → ±∞ as well? I've read about L'Hôpital's rule only working when the limit of the derivatives exists but I recently stumbled upon some text that indicated that it worked when it diverges to infinity, is that true?
2026-03-27 08:57:14.1774601834
L'Hôpital's rule when lim f′(x)/g′(x) → ±∞
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