I'm confused. I've read that for $1\leq p<q<\infty$ following inclusions are true:
$$\mbox{1)}\qquad \ell^p\subset\ell^q$$
$$\mbox{2)}\qquad L^q\subset L^p$$
My question is - why inclusions are opposite? Isn't $\ell^p$ a special case of $L^p$? (with counting measure)
It would be nice if somebody clarified it to me...
2) Is true if the base set has finite measure and 1) is true if every element is an atom.