We know that Laplace distribution has a form of $f_x=\frac{1}{b}*e^{(-\frac{|(x-\mu)|}{b})}$
Is it true to call the $f_x=\frac{1}{b}*e^{(-\frac{|(g(x)-\mu)|}{b})}$ distribution as generalized Laplace distribution?
2026-03-25 20:39:41.1774471181
Laplace distribution
146 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in DISTRIBUTION-THEORY
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