Is the following statement OK (when the Laplace and integral are well-defined)?
$$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty e^{-0x}f(x)dx=\mathcal{L}\{f(x)\}(0)$$
Many thanks!
2026-04-02 10:31:31.1775125891
Laplace transform and indefinite integral
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