Find the solution of the following IVP:
- y''(t)+y(t)= ∑(k=1 to 10) (-1)^(k+1)*(−)
- y(0)
- y'(0)=0
So using the Laplace Transformation:
s^2Y(s)+Y(s)= ∑(k=1 to 10)(-1)^(k+1)* exp(-k*pi *s)/(s^2+1)
And isolating and stuff I would have:
y(t)= ∑(k=1 to 10)(-1)^(k+1)* Heaviside[kpi] sin(t-k*pi)
Basiaclly what I want to know is if I can even do it like this, or do I have to work with a diffrent approach? Sorry for the horrible formating I have no idea how to do it better tbh. I appreciate any help I can get!
We are given
$$y''(t)+y(t)= \sum_{k=1}^{10} (-1)^{k+1}\delta(−\pi k)\\y(0)=0\\y'(0)=0$$
First, recall that the Laplace operator is linear. Therefore,
$$\displaystyle\mathcal{L}\left(\sum_{k=1}^{10} (-1)^{k+1}\delta(−\pi k)\right) = \sum_{k=1}^{10} \mathcal{L}\left((-1)^{k+1}\delta(−\pi k)\right) = \sum_{k=1}^{10} \left((-1)^{k+1} e^{-k \pi s}\right) $$
Next
$$\mathcal{L}(y'' + y) = s^2 Y(s) - s Y(0) - Y'(0) + Y(s) = (s^2+1) Y(s)$$
Putting it all together
$$ (s^2+1) Y(s) = \sum_{k=1}^{10} \left((-1)^{k+1} e^{-k \pi s}\right)$$
So
$$Y(s) = \sum_{k=1}^{10}\left(\dfrac{(-1)^{k+1} e^{-k \pi s}}{s^2+1}\right)$$
Please continue with the inverse Laplace transform.
Spoiler (from the previous step, you can simplify things, but your approach is okay)