let $M^n$ be a smooth an $n$-dimensional sub-manifold of a $\mathbb{R}^{m}$ ($n<m$). Denote by $\nabla^{M}$ and $\nabla^{\mathbb{R}^{m}}$ be the gradient of $M$ and $\mathbb{R}^{m}$ respectively. Similarly for $\Delta^{M}$ and $\Delta^{\mathbb{R}^{m}}$.
Please can you explain for me the relation between $\nabla^{M}$ and $\nabla^{\mathbb{R}^{m}}$ and that between $\Delta^{M}$ and $\Delta^{\mathbb{R}^{m}}$?
For example if I have $f$ a smooth function defined on $\mathbb{R}^{m}$. then $$\nabla^{M}(f\mid_{M})=??(\nabla^{\mathbb{R}^{m}}f)^{T}$$ $(\,)^T$ represents the tangential part.
Is that true? What about Laplacian?
I don't think that for Laplacian we might have a relationship like the gradients. Consider $\mathbb{R}^2$ and the unit circle $S^1$. Suppose $f(x,y) = x $. Then $ \nabla_{R^2}f= 0 $ however on the circle with induced metric $\nabla_{S^1}f = -\cos(\theta) \neq 0$. In general we know that, Laplacian of $f$ on $M$ is the sum of second derivatives of $f\restriction _M$ along the geodesics. On $\mathbb{R}^m$ geodesics are just lines. On the other hand, on a Riemannian submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^m$ geodesics might be very different then lines. In that sense, I think we can always create a function which has zero Laplacian on $\mathbb{R}^m$ but non-zero Laplacian on $M$.