The question is : Show that $$e^{{c\over 2}(z-{i \over z})}={\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty} a_nz^n$$
The question solved using Laurent's Series expansion where
$$a_n={1\over 2\pi i}\int_cf(z){dz \over z^{n+1}}$$ and $$b_n={1\over 2\pi i}\int_cf(z){dz \over z^{1-n}}$$
Then integrating and solving for $a_n$ i get
$$a_n={1\over 2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\cos(n\theta-c\sin\theta)d\theta$$
Now, we see that the function remains unaltered if $z$ is replaced by $-1\over z$
So far so good, now I don't understand the steps after this, it is given that :
so, $b_n=(-1)^na_n$ , It follows that
$$e^{{c\over 2}(z-{i \over z})}={\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nz^n} + {\sum_{n=1}^\infty b_nz^{-n}} = {\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty a_nz^n}.$$
Basically I don't understand how $b_n=(-1)^na_n$ and also the last part where the summation has been extended to $-\infty$
IMHO, there could a typo in the power of $(-1)$ for the expression for $b_n$. This is what I got: substitute $y=-1/z$ in the integral for $a_n$, this gives $a_n = \int_c f(-1/y) (-y)^{n+1} y^{-2} dy = (-1)^{n-1} \int_c f(-1/y) (1/y)^{1-n} dy = (-1)^{n-1} \int_c f(y) (1/y)^{1-n} dy = (-1)^{n-1} b_n$.
Therefore, $b_n = (-1)^{n-1} a_n$.
Maybe I made a sign error somewhere, in which case $b_n = (-1)^{n} a_n$.