So, I was recently asked by a friend about the lcm of two irrational numbers.
As far as I know, mathematically speaking, lcm is generally defined only for positive integers (and sometimes extended to negative integers and also even rationals).
But I have never heard of it being extended to irrationals. But my friend argues that lcm of irrationals is defined (in general).
He gives me an example: $\textrm{lcm}(e,2e)=2e$ where $e$ is the irrational Napier's constant.
I think he is wrong. I still want to hear opinions from others on this. What do you guys think, fellow MSE users?
I would write about an l.c.m. of two irrational numbers only if either (1) I explicitly say what I mean by the term rather than assuming the reader knows, or (2) I'm writing in some context in which it is appropriate to expect the reader to think about what the term ought to mean.
The smallest number that can be written as $n\Big(4\sqrt2\Big)=m\Big(6\sqrt2\Big)$ where $n$ and $m$ are positive integers is $12\sqrt2$, so one could say that is the l.c.m. of $4\sqrt2$ and $6\sqrt2$. One can write a sensible definition of l.c.m. so that the question of what is $\operatorname{lcm}\left(4\sqrt2,6\sqrt2\right)$ makes sense, but I would heed what the paragraph above says.
Note, however, that in that sense, $\operatorname{lcm}(a,b)$ will exist only if $a/b$ is rational and positive.