I have read in my textbook that if I have, for example two monomials $A$ e $B$ one or both with rational coefficients,
$$A=\frac 34 x^2y^3, \qquad B=-2xyz$$
for the $\text{lcm}$ or the $\text{gcd}$ we have always $1$ as numerical coefficient. Is it a convention or is there something more complex that I do not know?
$lcm$ or $gcd$ doesn't really come into play for the rational coefficient part, at least not in the precalc algebra that I know of.