$\ A^TA\boldsymbol x =\ A^T \boldsymbol b$
$$\ A= \begin{bmatrix}1&-3&-3\\1&5&1\\1&7&2\end{bmatrix} and \boldsymbol\ b = \begin{bmatrix}5\\-3\\-5\end{bmatrix}$$
So I'm trying to solve it by: $\boldsymbol x = \ (A^TA)^{-1}A^T\boldsymbol b$, but $A$ nor $A^TA$ is invertible.
A solution is supposed to be $$\boldsymbol x = \begin{bmatrix}2\\-1\\0\end{bmatrix}$$
How is this possible?
Invertible means
"is every vector $v_1$ mapped uniquely to another vector $v_2$ so that there exists another linear operator which takes us back?"
In other words which maps $v_2$ to $v_1$. If such an operator exists then it is called the inverse to the first one.
For our matrix, we can verify that all vectors parallel to $(3,-1,2)^T$ are mapped to the $0$ vector.
This ruins the uniqueness that is required for the linear operator to be invertible.
In general a non-invertible matrix can give whole subspaces of solutions to matrix-vector equations due to the lack of unique mapping property.
For example in this case it is probably a whole line full of solutions to the equation. Maybe you can find the line if you are curious.