How would one compute this integral using Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem? $$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\Big[\int_0^n\Big( 1+\frac{2x}{5n} \Big)e^{-x/2}dx\Big]$$ My understanding is we can't just set upper limit of the integral to be infinity and replace the integrand with just $e^{-x/2}$. But the upper limit being $n$ confuses me a lot.
2026-04-08 12:50:11.1775652611
Lebesgue dominated convergence integral
586 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
Let $f_n(x)=\left(1+\frac{2x}{5n}\right)e^{-x/2}\cdot\mathbb1_{(0,n)}(x)$.
Clearly we have for all $n$ and $x>0$ that $0 \le f_n(x)\le f(x)=\left(1+\frac{2}{5}x\right)e^{-x/2}$
And we can prove by integrating by parts that $\int_0^\infty f(x) dx=\frac{18}{5}<\infty$
So $|f_n|\le f$ which is integrable.
Also for $n>x$ we have $f_n(x)=\left(1+\frac{2x}{5n}\right)e^{-x/2}\rightarrow e^{-x/2}$ when $n\rightarrow\infty$
Then $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int f_n(x)dx=\int\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f_n(x)dx=\int_0^\infty e^{-x/2}dx=2$