How can I prove:
$$\lim_{a\to 0^+}\int_{a}^{1}(t\ln(t))^3dt=\int_{0}^{1}(t\ln(t))^3dt$$
assuming that the integral are Lebesgue integrals. There may be a theorem that confirms this equality.
How can I prove:
$$\lim_{a\to 0^+}\int_{a}^{1}(t\ln(t))^3dt=\int_{0}^{1}(t\ln(t))^3dt$$
assuming that the integral are Lebesgue integrals. There may be a theorem that confirms this equality.
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A more elementary approach could be the following. The function $t\mapsto t\ln t$ is continuous and bounded in $(0,1]$, just notice that $\lim_{t \to 0^+}t\ln t=0$, therefore if we set $$ f(t):=\begin{cases} t\ln t,& t>0\\ 0,& t=0 \end{cases} $$
then $f$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, so $f^3$ is Riemann integrable, so the improper integral coincides in value with the Riemann integral. Now, every integral in these expressions is trivially Lebesgue integrable as $f$ is continuous and bounded, so we are done.