For $(X, \mathcal A, \mu)$, $x \in X$ and $A \in \mathcal A$, is the following accurate? $$\int_X 1_A(x) \mu(dx) = \int_A \mu(dx) = \mu(A)$$
I'm not sure if my instincts are correct here. Thanks for any clarity.
For $(X, \mathcal A, \mu)$, $x \in X$ and $A \in \mathcal A$, is the following accurate? $$\int_X 1_A(x) \mu(dx) = \int_A \mu(dx) = \mu(A)$$
I'm not sure if my instincts are correct here. Thanks for any clarity.
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Define $A_1=A$ for the sake of noation. Let $A\subseteq E$. The indicator function $\mathbf 1_A$ is simple. We may write it as $$s= \sum_{i=1}^{n}\alpha_i\mathbf{1}_{A_i},$$ where $\alpha_1=1$ and $\alpha_i=0$ for $i>1$. Our integral is therefore equal to $$\int_E \mathbf 1_A\,\mathrm d\mu=\mu(E\cap A).$$ Since $A\subseteq E$, we have $\mu(A)$, as desired.