Let $f:[0,1]^2->\mathbb{R}$ with
$f(x,y)=\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}$ if $(x,y)\neq(0,0)$
$f(x,y)=0$ else
I want to calculate
$\lim_{a\to 0}\int_{[a,1]^2}f(x,y)d\mathscr{L}^2$
But how do Ido this? I already calculated
$\int_{0}^1\int_{0}^1f(x,y)dxdy=-\pi/4$
$\int_{0}^1\int_{0}^1f(x,y)dydx=\pi/4$
Doesn't that mean that I cannot use Fubini-Tonelli? But what other choice do I have?
All right, the function isn't absolutely integrable on the whole square. But that's not the question; we're looking at an improper integral, approaching the full square in a specific way akin to a principal value.
For any $a>0$, $$I(a) = \int_a^1\int_a^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,dy\,dx = \int_a^1\int_a^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,dx\,dy$$ $$\int_a^1\int_a^1 \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,dx\,dy = \int_a^1\int_a^1 \frac{y^2-x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,dy\,dx = -I(a)$$ In the first line, we use Fubini's theorem to switch the order (it's a bounded continuous function). In the second line, we just swap the names of the two variables - that isn't really a change of order. Combining the two, we get $I(a)=-I(a)$, so $I(a)=0$. Take the limit as $a\to 0$, and we get zero.