For what $n$ it is (in)consistent that all $\Sigma^1_n/\Pi^1_n$ sets are Lebesgue measurable ? I remember that there is a result that if all $\Sigma^1_3$ are Lebesgue measurable then $\omega_1$ is inaccessible in $\sf{L}$.
2026-04-29 08:39:35.1777451975
Lebesgue measurability
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