Is this property true:
For any set $A$ and $B$:
$$\left(A\times B\right)^n=A^n\times B^n?$$
Where $A\times B$ is the Cartesian product and $A^n=\underbrace{A\times A\times \cdots\times A}_{n\, \text{times}}$.
Is this property true:
For any set $A$ and $B$:
$$\left(A\times B\right)^n=A^n\times B^n?$$
Where $A\times B$ is the Cartesian product and $A^n=\underbrace{A\times A\times \cdots\times A}_{n\, \text{times}}$.
On
Well
$(A\times B)^n = \{ ((a_1,b_1),(a_2,b_2), \dots ,(a_n,b_n)) , \; a_i\in A, b_i \in B\}$\
and
$(A^n \times B^n) = \{\left((a_1,a_2,\dots, a_n),(b_1,b_2,\dots,b_n)\right), \; a_i\in A, b_i \in B \}$
So there is clearly a bijection ($a_i \to a_i , b_i \to b_i$), note that i gave appropriate names to the elements to automatically define the bijection
Not quite, but almost.
Note that $(A\times B)^n$ is a set of $n$-tuples of ordered pairs, whereas $A^n\times B^n$ is a set of ordered pairs made of $n$-tuples.
However, there is a very natural bijection between $(A\times B)^n$ and $A^n\times B^n$.