I don't understand a few things in the proof below.
First, why does $f(x)\ge \epsilon/n$? Right before this inequality it's stated that $d(x,C_i)\ge \epsilon.$ So each term in the definition of $f(x)$ (namely $\frac{d(x,C_i)}{n}$) is $\ge \epsilon/n$, so shouldn't their sum be $\ge \epsilon$?
Second, why does $\delta \le f(x_0)$ hold?
Finally, I cannot make sense of the very last sentence of the proof.

1). Each $d(x,C_j) \ge 0$, so since $d(x,C_i) \ge \epsilon$, $f(x) \ge \frac{\epsilon}{n}$.
2). $\delta$ is the minimum of $f$, so $f(x_0) \ge \delta$.
3). Since $d(x_0,C_m) \ge \delta$, the delta neighborhood of $x_0$ is disjoint from $C_m$ and thus lies in $A_m$.