Just wondering if this is the correct way to write this proof. Thank you!
Assume $a$ and $b$ have opposite parity. We’ll consider two cases: $a$ is even, $b$ is odd or $a$ is odd, and $b$ is even. WLOG, suppose $a$ is even, and $b$ is odd. By definition, $a=2m$ and $b=2n+1$ for some integers $m,n$. Then $a-b=2m-2n+1$ and therefore $a-b=2(m-n)+1$. Since $m-n$ is an integer, then $a-b$ is odd.
Let $a-b$ be odd. Then $a-b = 2n+1$ for some integer $n$. If we take both sides $\mod 2$, then we have $a-b \equiv 1 \mod 2$. Therefore $a,b$ have opposite parity since their difference $\not \equiv 0 \mod 2$.