Let $f_{k+1}(x)=f_{k}(\cos x)$ and $f_{1}(x)=\cos x$ then $\lim_{k\to\infty}f_{k}(x)=0.73905\cdots$
I was just piddling around with the calculator one day. I don't know what happened but I just happened to take the cosine of a single number (in radians) repeatedly. It converged to a single value $0.739085133\dots$ It converged to this same thing for every number I tried. Like for example, the cosine of the cosine of the cosine of the cosine$\dots$ of any arbitrary value is equal to that.
Please tell me if I have made a new observation, or if it's just a false alarm.

The function $f(x)=\cos (x))$ has just one fixed point ($x_0$ is a fixed point of $f(x_0)$ if and only if $f(x_0)=x_0$). That fixed point is as you found $x_0\approx 0.739085133$.
Then you can see that $|f'(x_0)|=|-\sin (x_0)|<1$.
So $x_0\approx 0.739085133$ is an attractive fixed point of $f(x)=\cos (x)$, and that's why you got that result using your calculator.