Let $f:\mathbb{R \rightarrow R}$ satisfies $f(x)+f(y)= f \biggl(\frac{x+y}{1-xy}\biggl)$ and $f'(0)=5$. Then find $f(x)$
Teacher's Method:
He differentiated the whole function with respect to $x$ as follow
$f^{\prime}(x)+f^{\prime}(y) \cdot \frac{dy}{dx}=f^{\prime}(\frac {x+y}{1-xy}) \cdot \biggl(\frac{\big(1-xy\big)\big(1+\frac{dy}{dx}\big)+\big(x+y\big)\big(x\frac{dy}{dx}+y\big)}{\big(1-xy\bigl)^2}\biggl)$
And he put $\frac{dy}{dx}=0$ stating that $x$ and $y$ are independent
and finally he obtained the result $f(x)=5\tan^{-1}(x)$
My Doubt:
why $x$ and $y$ are independent?
finally we are obtaining the result $y=5\tan^{-1}(x)$ $\;$then how can they be independent?
My second Doubt: why above method is not working for $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$
I know what is the other method to solve this Question but my doubt is as mentioned above.
I think what he did is take a partial derivative wrt x and then plug $x=0$,it becomes $$f'(x)=\left(\dfrac{1+y^2}{(1-xy)^2}\right)\cdot f'\left(\dfrac{x+y}{1-xy}\right)\implies f'(0)=\dfrac{f'(y)}{1+y^2}$$ which gives the solution $f(x)=5\arctan{x}+c$.PLugging back into the original assertion we get $c=0$ hence $f(x)=5\arctan(x)$
Actually this and what your sir did are just the same,basically we just put $y=$ something fixed and then differentiated wrt $x$ in crude terms.Thats why we can ignore the $\dfrac{dy}{dx}=0$.I hope I am making sense(This is what taking a partial derivative is)