I try to use inverse map theorem in a function defined interns of $f$ or implicit map theorem but I can't get this result.
2026-03-27 14:03:15.1774620195
Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}^2$ be a $C^1$ map. Then the restriction of $f$ to any open set is not surjective
36 Views Asked by user61527 https://math.techqa.club/user/user61527/detail AtRelated Questions in ANALYSIS
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