If $F(x+y,x/y)=0$ for $F$ smooth and $(x,y)$ in any open subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$, then $F=0$ on an open subset.

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I came across the following statement in Olver's "Applications of Lie Groups to Differential Equations". Paraphrasing:

Let $\xi^1(x,y)=x+y$, $\xi^2(x,y)=\frac{x}{y}$, and $U$ an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ which does not contain the line $y\ne 0$. For any smooth (infinitely differentiable) $F:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, if $F\left(\xi^1(x,y),\xi^2(x,y)\right)=0$ for $(x,y)\in U$, then there exists an open subset of $V=\left(\xi^1(U),\xi^2(U)\right)$ such that $F(V)=0$.

Apparently this follows through an application of the inverse function theorem, but I can't see how to make this work.