Let $H\lhd G$ and $\psi:G \to G / H$, $x \mapsto xH$ be a function. I am struggling to show that the map is surjective.
Is it just so simple to say let $y:=xH \in G / H$ than it is trivial that we get $x \in G$ s.t. $\psi(x)=xH$ and hence it is surjective? Many thanks for your help!
Yes, your argument is correct.
A very minor gripe: you don't "get" $x$ such that $\psi(x)=xH$. You actually start with one, and as you say, it trivially satisfies $\psi(x)=xH$.