I know that every real number has a decimal expansion.
Intuitively, it seems that the converse must also be true; that is, if a number has a decimal expansion then it must be real. However, I have never been able to find a definitive answer to this.
Furthermore, while perusing some old questions some days ago on this site, a user who posted an answer to another question stipulated something to the effect, "and assuming that a number with a decimal expansion is real \ldots"; also, I have not since been able to find the question in which the comment was made.
So, my question is:
If $n$ is a number with a decimal expansion, is $n$ a real number?
If we have an infinite decimal expansion $.a_1a_2a_3\ldots$, it is defined to be the limit of the sequence of partial expansions, i.e. $.a_1, .a_1a_2, .a_1a_2a_3, \ldots, .a_1a_2a_3\ldots a_n, \ldots$.
It should be clear that this is a Cauchy sequence of real numbers, and it is a defining property of the reals that every Cauchy sequence of real numbers converges to a real. So, our infinite decimal does in fact correspond to a real number.