Progress:
Since, $p,q$ are irrationals and $p^2$ and $q^2$ are relatively prime, thus, $p^2\cdot{q^2}$ cannot be a proper square, so, $pq$ is also irrational. Suppose, $pq=k$, then: $$\sqrt{k}\cdot\sqrt{k}=\sqrt{pq}\cdot\sqrt{pq}=k$$ Which implies that $\sqrt{pq}$ is irrational, since, $k$ is irrational and that $p^2\cdot{q^2}$ cannot be a proper square being $p^2$ and $q^2$ relatively prime and that concludes the proof.
The above lines are my attempt to prove the assertion. Is the proof correct? If not then how can I improve or disprove it.
Regrads
The first part is correct, but you could clarify it a little bit:
The second part is somewhat obscure, but you could simply use the following argument instead: