Let
$$S(x)=\sum_{p\le x,\; q\le x,\; pq\gt x}\frac{1}{pq},$$
where $p$ and $q$ denote prime numbers. Show that as $x\to\infty$,$S(x)$ converges to a constant, and find the value of that constant.
First, I think I need to manipulate the sum to something more convenient to deal with, but I'm really struggling to make any progress with this problem. I'm trying to learn Analytic Number Theory on my own, and I would greatly appreciate it if anyone could show me some genius way to work through this.
As Eric Naslund's answer below shows, the calculation here in fact doesn't work. One wonders where the error is.
Roughly speaking, $\sum_{p \leq x} \frac{1}{p} \approx \log\log x$. Therefore $$ \sum_{p,q \leq x, pq > x} \frac{1}{pq} = \sum_{p \leq x} \frac{1}{p} \sum_{x/p < q \leq x} \frac{1}{q} \approx \sum_{p \leq x} \frac{1}{p} \left(\log\log x - \log\log \frac{x}{p}\right). $$ Using $(d/dt) \log t = 1/t$, $$ \log\log x - \log\log \frac{x}{p} = \log(\log x) - \log(\log x - \log p) \approx \frac{\log p}{\log x}, $$ and so $$ \sum_{p,q \leq x, pq > x} \frac{1}{pq} \approx \frac{1}{\log x} \sum_{p \leq x} \frac{\log p}{p}. $$ Again roughly speaking, $\sum_{p \leq x} \frac{\log p}{p} \approx \log x$, and we conclude that $$ \sum_{p,q \leq x, pq > x} \frac{1}{pq} \approx 1. $$
(In order to get the estimates on $\sum_{p \leq x} \frac{1}{p}$ and $\sum_{p \leq x} \frac{\log p}{p}$, use $\sum_{p \leq x} f(p) \approx \int^x \frac{f(p)}{\log p} \, dp$.)