Let $T_{a}$ denote the first time the Brownian motion process hits $a$. When $a>0$, then $P\{X(t)\ge a|T_{a}\le t\}=\frac{1}{2}$
I cannot see how it can be true, anyone could help me? Thanks very much.
Let $T_{a}$ denote the first time the Brownian motion process hits $a$. When $a>0$, then $P\{X(t)\ge a|T_{a}\le t\}=\frac{1}{2}$
I cannot see how it can be true, anyone could help me? Thanks very much.
On
One can also use reflection principle for Wiener process to find out the probability. Define the reflected Wiener process $Y(t) := X(t)1_{t < T_a} + (2a - X(t))1_{t\ge T_a}$. Note that $Y(t)$ is also a Wiener process and $T_a$ is also the first time $Y(t)$ hits $a$. We have $$\operatorname{Pr}\left(Y(T) \ge a \mid T_a \le T\right) = \operatorname{Pr}\left(X(T) \ge a \mid T_a \le T\right).$$ On the other hand, $$\begin{eqnarray}\operatorname{Pr}\left(Y(T) \ge a \mid T_a \le T\right) &=& \operatorname{Pr}\left(2a - X(T) \ge a \mid T_a \le T\right)\\& =& \operatorname{Pr}\left(X(T) \le a \mid T_a \le T\right) ,\end{eqnarray}$$ hence $$\operatorname{Pr}\left(X(T) \ge a \mid T_a \le T\right) = \frac{1}{2}.$$
The idea is as follows. Consider some realisation of the process. Since $T_a\leq t$, the process must have hit $a$ by time $t$, at some $T_a$. Now imagine the process behaviour from $T_a$ to $t$. Starting with $B(T_a)$, by symmetry, it is just as likely to move below $a$ or above $a$. More precisely:
$$P\{X(t)\geq a|T_a\leq t\}=P\{X(T_a+(t-T_a))-a\geq 0|T_a\leq t\}=P\{X(T_a+(t-T_a))-X(T_a)\geq 0|T_a\leq t\}=\frac12.$$
To see why this is the case, we might think that $X(t)-a=X(t)-X(T_a)\sim\mathcal{N}(0,t-T_a)$, which is symmetric, and hence gives $\frac12$. The only problem here is that $T_a$ is random. However, $X(T_a+s)-X(T_a)$ is actually a Brownian motion for $t\geq 0$; this result follows from the property of strong independent increments or strong Markov property (see, e.g., Adventures in Stochastic Processes by S. Resnick, page 504).