If $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, ..., $X_{n}$ is sampled from $N(\theta_1, \theta_2)$, how can I prove that $E [(X_{1} - \theta_1)^{4}] = 3 \theta_2^{2}$?
I started off this question finding the completely sufficient statistics. This can be done because the normal distribution of of exponential class. The results are $Y_1 = \sum\limits_iX_{i}$ and $Y_2 =\sum\limits_iX_{i}^{2}$
Therefore I know $E(\bar X) =\theta_1$, but how can I come up with the $\theta_2$?
Also, because of how the question look, I think I would need to use the formula: $\operatorname{Var}(X) = E[X^{2}] - E(X)^{2}$
Can someone give me some ideas on how to proceed? Help is much appreciated!
$$E[g(X)] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty g(x)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi \theta_2^2}} \exp \left( \frac{(x-\theta_1)^2}{2 \theta_2^2}\right) \mathrm{d}x$$
$$E[(X - \theta_1)^n] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty (x-\theta_1)^n\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi \theta_2^2}} \exp \left( \frac{(x-\theta_1)^2}{2 \theta_2^2}\right) \mathrm{d}x$$
Now let $n=4$, and integrate.